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Free Fortinet Certification NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Official Cert Guide PDF Download

NEW QUESTION # 10
Refer to the exhibit:

You are asked to block applications based on hash attributes. Which two factors must you consider when applying the hash value? (Choose two answers)

• A. Hashes must be line-separated.
• B. Hashes must follow supported formats.
• C. Hashes must be unique to each application.
• D. Hashes must be used with at least one attribute, such as a filename or path.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that when manually adding applications to be blocked, you can define the application using Hash or using any combination of File Name / Path / Signer attributes. This means hashes can be used independently and do not require filename, path, or signer attributes.
The guide also states that each hash is a unique identifier of an individual application, and the exhibit itself shows the hash field note: "SHA-1 or SHA-2 or MD5." Therefore, the hash must use a supported hash format, making D correct.
For multiple hash entries, the uploaded guide text says they must be comma separated , while the exhibit note says "You can enter multiple hashes comma separated." So the technically exact guide wording supports comma separation, not line separation. However, given your answer choices, A is clearly trying to test the requirement that multiple hashes must be separated correctly. The option wording says "line- separated," which is not exact against the guide; the better wording would be comma-separated . Since no
"comma-separated" option is provided, A is the intended separation-related answer, but the wording is flawed.
Option B is definitely wrong because hash mode is an alternative to attributes. Option C is also not the best answer because, although each hash uniquely identifies a file/application variant, the operational requirement is not that "hashes must be unique to each application" in the way the option implies. Hashes may represent different variants of the same application.

NEW QUESTION # 11
Refer to the exhibit:

You configured an execution prevention exclusion with both File Name = app.exe and Path = C:\Tools. What will FortiEDR do? (Choose one answer)

• A. Exclude only app.exe when it is running from C:\Tools.
• B. Exclude app.exe whenever it appears.
• C. Exclude all files in C:\Tools.
• D. Exclude only signed versions of app.exe.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Exclude only app.exe when it is running from C:\Tools.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that the Exclusion Manager is used to define which processes, files, or domains are excluded from Security Policies monitoring. For Process Exclusions, FortiEDR does not inspect actions performed by specific processes, and those processes are identified by the attributes defined by the administrator.
The guide further explains that process/source attributes can include File Name, Path, Hash, and Signer. It also states that when an exclusion contains multiple conditions, an AND relationship exists between the conditions. If an OR relationship is required, a separate exclusion must be created.
In this exhibit, both conditions are selected:
File Name = app.exe
Path = C:\Tools
Because FortiEDR applies an AND relationship between multiple exclusion conditions, the exclusion applies only when both conditions match. Therefore, FortiEDR excludes app.exe only when it is located/running from C:\Tools.
Option A is wrong because no Signer condition is selected. Option C is wrong because that would apply if only the file name were used broadly. Option D is wrong because FortiEDR is not excluding every file in C:
\Tools; it is excluding the process that matches both the file name and path conditions.

NEW QUESTION # 12
Refer to the Exhibit:

A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)

• A. The application with the Medium vulnerability score and ACI evidence should be addressed first.
• B. The decision depends only on asset criticality, not scores.
• C. The application with the Critical vulnerability score should be addressed first.
• D. Both applications should be treated equally because patching is necessary.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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NEW QUESTION # 13
Which two Python commands are supported when using FortiEDR Connect to directly access a protected device shell? (Choose two answers)

• A. %ipconfig_all
• B. %upload_file
• C. %timestamp
• D. %psexec

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The correct answers are A. %upload_file and B. %ipconfig_all .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that FortiEDR Connect opens a console that provides direct access to a FortiEDR-protected device through a remote shell connection. This allows administrators to respond to incidents, run commands and scripts, collect and download forensic data, and remediate threats.
The guide also states that the FortiEDR Connect terminal has a prompt where commands can be typed, and the Help button displays the supported commands and their parameters.
The guide further confirms that FortiEDR Connect supports FortiEDR-specific commands, Windows command-line access through %cmd , and Python commands.
For the exact command list, Fortinet's official FortiEDR Connect technical tip lists the supported commands.
In that list, %ipconfig_all is explicitly described as returning extended IP information, and %upload_file is explicitly described as uploading a file to the specified path. ( Fortinet Community ) Options C. %psexec and D. %timestamp are not listed as supported FortiEDR Connect commands in the official Fortinet command list. Therefore, they must not be selected.
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NEW QUESTION # 14
You find third-party software on a user's computer that does not appear in the application list on the communication control console. Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two answers)

• A. The application is blocked by the security policies.
• B. The application is allowed in all communication control policies.
• C. The application is ignored because its reputation score is acceptable to the security policy.
• D. The application has not made any connection attempts.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
The best answers are A and D , but be careful: A is directly verified by the guide; D is the only remaining statement that can be true in policy context, but it is weaker than A.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the Communication Control tab identifies communicating applications detected in the organization. More specifically, the Applications page lists "all communicating applications detected in your organization that have ever attempted to communicate." Therefore, if software exists on a user's computer but does not appear in the Communication Control application list, the most direct explanation is that it has not attempted external communication .
The guide also explains that FortiEDR Communication Control reduces the scope of administration because Security/IT only needs to handle applications that communicate externally. It also states that non-authorized applications can still execute, and only their outgoing communication is prevented. This confirms that the Communication Control application list is not a full software inventory; it is a list of applications that have communicated or attempted communication.
Option B is not correct. If an application were blocked due to FortiEDR security-policy enforcement after a connection attempt, FortiEDR would generate security-event visibility in the Incidents workflow, not simply hide the application from Communication Control. FortiEDR Collectors send communication-related data for Communication Control, and security events are sent for enforcement/monitoring purposes.
Option C is also wrong. Reputation score affects policy decisions and application risk evaluation, but it does not cause an application to be ignored or excluded from the application list. The guide says each application in the Applications page shows a reputation indicator, which proves reputation is displayed for listed applications rather than used to hide them.
For option D , if the application has never attempted communication, Communication Control has no observed communication event to list. In exam logic, this can be interpreted as the application is not currently being denied by Communication Control policies. However, the stronger technical truth is this:
Communication Control does not list installed software; it lists applications that have attempted to communicate.
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NEW QUESTION # 15
What action does an on-premises reputation server take when it receives a hash request that is not found in its local database? (Choose one answer)

• A. Requests the missing hashes from the cloud reputation service
• B. Automatically blocks applications with unknown hashes
• C. Ignores them until manually updated
• D. Stores them locally and waits for endpoint input

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that for on-premises deployments, the on-premise reputation service requests missing hashes from the cloud reputation service . If a proxy is not enabled, it requests the missing hashes from the cloud reputation service through the manager nginx . If a proxy is enabled, the on-premises reputation service requests the missing hashes through the proxy.
So, when the local reputation database does not contain the requested hash, the on-premises reputation server does not ignore the request, wait for endpoint input, or automatically block the application. It queries the cloud reputation service for the missing hash reputation data.
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NEW QUESTION # 16
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)

• A. Create a new communication control policy and apply it to multiple organizations.
• B. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization.
• C. Create a new communication control policy and delegate it to other organizations.
• D. Create a new communication control policy and assign it globally to all organizations.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 17
What specific action does FortiEDR take when the Zero Trust Device Tagging playbook is activated?
(Choose one answer)

• A. It disables the endpoint until a tag is assigned.
• B. It updates FortiClient EMS through an API and assigns a classification fabric tag.
• C. It assigns a default tag to all endpoints.
• D. It removes unmanaged endpoints from FortiClient EMS.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 18
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)

• A. IP address and MAC address
• B. Device and user name
• C. Installed applications
• D. Installed OS name

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.

NEW QUESTION # 19
A collector attempts to access a known malicious website. FortiEDR is configured for eXtended detection with FortiAnalyzer. What two roles does Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) perform in this process? (Choose two answers)

• A. FCS sends OS metadata to the FortiEDR manager.
• B. FCS correlates and analyzes the collected logs.
• C. FCS sends a log record to FortiAnalyzer.
• D. FCS identifies if a malicious event has taken place and reports the detection incident.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The guide states that for eXtended Detection Source integration, FortiEDR connects to external systems to collect activity logs. The aggregated data is then sent to Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) , where it is correlated and analyzed to detect malicious indications. Those malicious indications result in security events for eXtended Detection policy rule violations .
For FortiAnalyzer/FortiAnalyzer Cloud specifically, the guide states that this integration is used to correlate data between FortiEDR and the Fortinet Security Fabric and issue eXtended Detection alerts .
Option A is wrong because FCS does not send the original log record to FortiAnalyzer. FortiAnalyzer is the external source whose data is correlated with FortiEDR data. Option B is wrong because OS metadata is collected by the Collector and handled through FortiEDR components; the FCS role here is cloud-side enrichment, correlation, and detection, not sending OS metadata back to the manager.
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NEW QUESTION # 20
Refer to the Exhibit:

Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)

• A. The policy is in simulation mode.
• B. Playbooks are configured for this event.
• C. The event has been blocked.
• D. The device is moved to isolation.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
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NEW QUESTION # 21
Refer to the Exhibit:

Based on the investigation view shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this event are true? (Choose two answers)

• A. The exfiltration prevention policy blocked this event.
• B. An exception was created for this incident.
• C. The raw data is displayed in the stacks view.
• D. The device has been isolated.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows a green checkmark in the Exception column for the filezilla.exe event. In FortiEDR, an exception means a whitelist has been created for a specific flow/security-event pattern. The guide states that exceptions limit enforcement of a rule and that after an exception is defined, identical new events are no longer triggered. It also explains that past security events display an icon indicating that an exception has been defined for them.
The exhibit also shows the event flow ending in filezilla.exe with a red highlighted activity and a blocked symbol. In the Incidents/Investigation workflow, FortiEDR represents blocked policy violations as security events, and the guide explains that FortiEDR can enforce policy by blocking malicious connection establishment requests to prevent exfiltration. It also states that Block means the malicious exfiltration or file- changing attempt was blocked.

NEW QUESTION # 22
You are asked to configure a query to run every 15 minutes, automatically searching for specific registry modifications across all endpoints. Which FortiEDR feature must you configure? (Choose one answer)

• A. A manual query linked to a policy override
• B. A new playbook trigger based on the registry change event
• C. A communication control rule with a 15-minute delay
• D. A scheduled query defined within a threat hunting profile

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is C.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting searches across endpoint activity events, including registry activity. It states that Threat Hunting can search based on attributes of files, registry keys and values, network, processes, event log, and activity event types. This fits the requirement to search for specific registry modifications across endpoints.
The guide also explains that after filtering activity events, the query can be saved and defined as a Scheduled Query. It says: "Scheduled Query: Mark this option to automate the process of detecting threats so that this query is run automatically according to the schedule that you define." It also states that a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab when matches are detected, and notifications can be sent through email, Syslog, and other configured methods.
The guide further states that the Repeat Every/On options define the frequency and schedule when the query runs. Therefore, a 15-minute recurring query is handled through the Scheduled Query capability in Threat Hunting, not Communication Control, policy override, or a manual Playbook trigger.
Strictly speaking, the guide calls this a scheduled query under Threat Hunting saved queries, not a
"communication control rule" or "manual query." Option C is the intended answer.
=========

NEW QUESTION # 23
Refer to the Exhibit:

Based on the FortiEDR status output shown in the exhibit, what are two reasons for the degraded state?
(Choose two answers)

• A. The endpoint has windows firewall enabled.
• B. The collector is installed with an incorrect port number.
• C. The collector is installed with an incorrect registration password.
• D. The endpoint cannot reach the central manager.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The exhibit shows:
FortiEDR Service: Up
FortiEDR Driver: Up
FortiEDR Status: Degraded (no configuration)
This means the local Collector service and driver are running, but the Collector has not received valid configuration. In FortiEDR, a Collector must register and communicate with the FortiEDR Aggregator to receive its configuration. The guide states that the Collector initially sends registration information to the FortiEDR Aggregator using SSL, sends ongoing health/status/security-event information, and receives its configuration from the Aggregator.
During installation, a non-customized Windows Collector requires the correct Aggregator address , Aggregator port 8081 , and registration password . The guide explicitly states that the Aggregator port should be specified as 8081 , and that the registration password must be entered during installation.
Therefore, an incorrect registration password or incorrect port number can prevent proper registration
/configuration retrieval, resulting in a degraded/no-configuration state.
Option A is not the best answer because Windows Firewall being enabled by itself does not automatically cause this FortiEDR status; only if it blocks required FortiEDR communication would it matter, and the option is too generic. Option D is also not correct as written because the Collector receives configuration from the Aggregator , not directly from the Central Manager. The guide describes Collector-to-Aggregator communication for registration and configuration.
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NEW QUESTION # 24
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