New 2025 Realistic Free ISC CISSP Exam Dump Questions & Answer [Q452-Q471]

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New 2025 Realistic Free ISC CISSP Exam Dump Questions and Answer

CISSP Practice Test Engine: Try These 1795 Exam Questions


The CISSP certification exam is considered one of the most challenging exams in the field of information security. CISSP exam consists of 250 multiple-choice questions that must be completed within six hours. The questions are designed to test an individual's knowledge in various areas of information security, including security concepts, access control, cryptography, and network security.


How to earn MCISSP credential?

The candidate must earn 40 continuing education units (CEUs) for the MCISSP credential. The CEUs may be earned through participation in the ISSA-certified training course, obtaining CEUs from any other Information Systems Security Association (ISSA) member, obtaining certification credits for passing the exam, or through participating in many other online sites.

The Master level provides a well-rounded view of the entire field of information security and prepares professionals to step into security executive positions as well as pursuing the CISSP (ISC)2. The candidate must have either a minimum of five years professional experience in two or more areas of information security; or one year of experience in two or more areas of information security and a four-year college degree. As the MCISSP has broadened its reach, it can now be achieved by those who hold this credential and no prior professional-level certifications.

Three new specialties were added to give depth to students' profession knowledge, which was not previously seen with the MCSE speciality.


How to earn PCSA credentials?

The candidate must earn 50 continuing education units (CEUs) for the PCSA credential. The CEUs may be earned through participation in the ISSA - ISC2 Security Forum of Interest Community of Interest (COI), attendance at an Information Systems Security Association (ISSA) certified training course, obtaining CEUs from any other Information Systems Security Association or Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA) member, obtaining certification credits for passing the exam, or through participating in many other online sites. The Professional level requires passing two exams to achieve. The PCSA credential is defined as conforming to the requirements of NCEES, the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), and the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium (ISC). The test will not earn a CISSP valid certification.

 

NEW QUESTION # 452
Which of the following is true about a "dry pipe" sprinkler system?

  • A. It minimizes chances of accidental discharge of water
  • B. It maximizes chances of accidental discharge of water
  • C. It is a substitute for carbon dioxide systems
  • D. It uses less water than "wet pipe" systems

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 453
Which of the following access control techniques best gives the security officers the ability to specify and enforce enterprise-specific security policies in a way that maps naturally to an organization's structure?

  • A. Non-mandatory access control
  • B. Discretionary access control
  • C. Access control lists
  • D. Role-based access control

Answer: D

Explanation:
Role-based access control (RBAC) gives the security officers the ability to specify and enforce enterprise-specific security policies in a way that maps naturally to an organization's structure. Each user is assigned one or more roles, and each role is assigned one or more privileges that are given to users in that role. An access control list
(ACL) is a table that tells a system which access rights each user has to a particular system object. With discretionary access control, administration is decentralized and owners of resources control other users' access. Non-mandatory access control is not a defined access control technique.
Source: ANDRESS, Mandy, Exam Cram CISSP, Coriolis, 2001, Chapter 2: Access Control
Systems and Methodology (page 9).


NEW QUESTION # 454
The top speed of ISDN BRI is 256 KBS.(True/False)

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:
The top speed of ISDN BRI is 128 KBS. Its two primary channels are each capable
of carrying 64 KBS so the combined top speed is 128 KBS.


NEW QUESTION # 455
What action should be taken by a business line that is unwilling to accept the residual risk in a system after implementing compensating controls?

  • A. Find another business line willing to accept the residual risk.
  • B. Purchase insurance to cover the residual risk.
  • C. Notify the audit committee of the situation.
  • D. Implement operational safeguards.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Residual risk is the risk that remains after implementing controls to mitigate the original risk. If a business line is unwilling to accept the residual risk in a system, one possible action is to purchase insurance to cover the potential losses or damages that may result from the residual risk. This is a form of risk transfer, which is one of the four risk management strategies, along with risk avoidance, risk mitigation, and risk acceptance.
Notifying the audit committee, implementing operational safeguards, and finding another business line are not valid actions to deal with residual risk . References: [CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter
1, page 32]; [CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 2, page 151].


NEW QUESTION # 456
The FIRST step in building a firewall is to

  • A. define the intended audience who will read the firewall policy.
  • B. identify mechanisms to encourage compliance with the policy.
  • C. assign the roles and responsibilities of the firewall administrators.
  • D. perform a risk analysis to identify issues to be addressed.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 457
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of a compromised Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL)7 certified primary domain controller?

  • A. Application code issue
  • B. Disgruntled employee
  • C. Non-configured Access Control List (ACL)
  • D. Incompatible security design

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 458
What is the PRIMARY role of a scrum master in agile development?

  • A. To choose the primary development language
  • B. To choose the integrated development environment
  • C. To match the software requirements to the delivery plan
  • D. To project manage the software delivery

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 459
What size is an MD5 message digest (hash)?

  • A. 128 bytes
  • B. 256 bits
  • C. 128 bits
  • D. 160 bits

Answer: C

Explanation:
MD5 is a one-way hash function producing a 128-bit message digest from the input
message, through 4 rounds of transformation. MD5 is specified as an Internet Standard
(RFC1312).
Reference(s) used for this question:
TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.


NEW QUESTION # 460
Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?

  • A. Integrity and control
  • B. All of the choices.
  • C. Availability
  • D. Confidentiality

Answer: B

Explanation:
Most computer attacks only corrupt a system's security in very specific ways. For example, certain attacks may enable a hacker to read specific files but don't allow alteration of any system components. Another attack may allow a hacker to shut down certain system components but doesn't allow access to any files. Despite the varied capabilities of computer attacks, they usually result in violation of only four different security properties: availability, confidentiality, integrity, and control.


NEW QUESTION # 461
When planning a penetration test, the tester will be MOST interested in which information?

  • A. Places to install back doors
  • B. The main network access points
  • C. Exploits that can attack weaknesses
  • D. Job application handouts and tours

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 462
What is one disadvantage of content-dependent protection of information?

  • A. It requires additional password entry.
  • B. It limits the user's individual address space.
  • C. It exposes the system to data locking.
  • D. It increases processing overhead.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
'Content-dependent' access control is a form of access control required by many applications. It is defined as access control where the decision to allow access to an object depends upon the value of attributes of the user and target objects themselves. One drawback with Content-dependent access control is that extra processing is required.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Content-dependent protection does not require an additional password entry.
C: Content-dependent protection does not lock data.
D: Content-dependent protection does not limit any address space.
References:
http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/summary?doi=10.1.1.41.5365


NEW QUESTION # 463
Which of the following statements is TRUE of black box testing?

  • A. Only the source code and functional specifications are known to the test planner.
  • B. Only the functional specifications are known to the test planner.
  • C. Only the source code and the design documents are known to the test planner.
  • D. Only the design documents and the functional specifications are known to the test planner.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 464
Which of the following defines the key exchange for Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)?

  • A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) key exchange
  • B. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
  • C. Security Key Exchange (SKE)
  • D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 465
How do you distinguish between a bridge and a router?

  • A. The bridge is a specific type of router used to connect a LAN to the global Internet.
  • B. "Bridge" and "router" are synonyms for equipment used to join two networks.
  • C. The bridge connects multiple networks at the data link layer, while router connects multiple networks at the network layer.
  • D. A bridge simply connects multiple networks, a router examines each packet to determine which network to forward it to.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The following answers are incorrect:
A bridge simply connects multiple networks, a router examines each packet to determine which network to forward it to. Is incorrect because both forward packets this is not distinctive enough.
"Bridge" and "router" are synonyms for equipment used to join two networks. Is incorrect because the two are unique and operate at different layers of the OSI model.
The bridge is a specific type of router used to connect a LAN to the global Internet. Is incorrect because a bridge does not connect a LAN to the global internet, but connects networks together creating a LAN.


NEW QUESTION # 466
Which of the following is used to support the concept of defense in depth during the development phase of a software product?

  • A. Known vulnerability list
  • B. Security auditing
  • C. Polyinstiation
  • D. Maintenance hooks

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 467
What is the PRIMARY responsibility of a data owner?

  • A. Ensure safeguards are audited on a regular basis.
  • B. Ensure information is protected with appropriate controls.
  • C. Implement appropriate safeguards for the information.
  • D. Make information available to authorized end users.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 468
What can be defined as a momentary low voltage?

  • A. Spike
  • B. Fault
  • C. Brownout
  • D. Sag

Answer: D

Explanation:
A sag is a momentary low voltage. A spike is a momentary high voltage. A fault is a momentary power out and a brownout is a prolonged power supply that is below normal voltage.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-
Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 6: Physical security (page 299).


NEW QUESTION # 469
The equation Z = f [wn in ], where Z is the output, wn are weighting
functions, and in is a set of inputs describes:

  • A. A knowledge acquisition system
  • B. A knowledge-based system
  • C. An artificial neural network (ANN)
  • D. An expert system

Answer: C

Explanation:
The equation defines a single layer ANN as shown in Figure.

Each input, in, is multiplied by a weight, wn , and these products are fed into a summation transfer function, , that generates an output,
Z. Most neural networks have multiple layers of summation and weighting functions, whose interconnections can also be changed. There are a number of different learning paradigms for neural networks, including reinforcement learning and back propagation. In reinforcement learning a training set of inputs is provided to the ANN along with a measure of how close the network is coming to a solution. Then, the weights and connections are readjusted. In back propagation, information is fed back inside the neural network from the output and is used by the ANN to make weight and connection adjustments. *Answers An expert system and A knowledge-based system are distracters that describe systems that use knowledge-based rules of experts to solve problems using an inferencing mechanism. *A knowledge acquisition system refers to the means of identifying and acquiring the knowledge to be entered into the knowledge base of an expert system.


NEW QUESTION # 470
What is the MOST effective way to determine a mission critical asset in an organization?

  • A. business process analysis
  • B. Business risk analysis
  • C. Vulnerability analysis
  • D. Threat analysis

Answer: A

Explanation:
Business process analysis is the most effective way to determine a mission critical asset in an organization.
Business process analysis is a method of identifying, documenting, and optimizing the core business processes that deliver value to the customers and stakeholders. By analyzing the business processes, an organization can identify the assets that are essential for the successful operation and continuity of the business, such as data, systems, personnel, facilities, and suppliers. These assets are then classified as mission critical and prioritized for protection and recovery. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 35. Free daily CISSP practice questions, Question 4.


NEW QUESTION # 471
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